The election is over. The signs and commercials have been pulled. It's over, for 4 years.
The 14th Amendment permits states to deny the vote "for participation in rebellion, or other crime."
The purpose of prison is to deny freedom. Voting is not a privilege, it is the basic right that defines a citizen. Those denied it are people without a country.
Do you think prisoners should be allowed to vote? Should people who have paid their debt to society have their rights restored? Why or why not?
DelMarVa's Premier Source for News, Opinion, Analysis, and Human Interest Contact Publisher Joe Albero at alberobutzo@wmconnect.com or 410-430-5349
9 comments:
In answer to the first part of the question, NO I don't believe prisoners should have the right to vote. I believe they gave up all their rights when they committed the crime.
As for the second point, should they regain that right after paying their debt to society, I believe it should be possible, but they should be required to earn that right back. By that I mean they need to prove to society that they not only have paid their debt, but they have been truly reformed and become a good citizen. They need to demonstrate this over a period of time. Some time frame like a 10 year period. If someone has stayed on the right track for 10 years, I feel they have shown they can be entrusted with that right to vote. But until that time, they shouldn't have any say in what could affect the way our government deals with crime. Voting is a huge part of that.
I think that convicted felons should not have the right to vote. Additionally, I think that their right should be suspended until the entire sentence is served including parole and probation and suspended/time served.
I know it sounds a little harsh, but I believe that voting is and should be a cherished right, thus we need quality citizens to cast quality votes.
The constitution provides no right to vote. While the vote may not be denied for a list of reasons including age, sex, and race. There is no constitutional prohibition, for instance, to not allow persons supported by the government to vote. Why should those who do not contribute be able to vote for those who would give them more? Just a question.
There is that 24th amendment about not denying the vote for "failure to pay any poll tax or other tax" which may cause me to modify my comment about "those who do not contribute" but would not affect the "supported by the government" portion, which of course means supported by tax payers.
I think the law has it right. When you are convicted you lose your right. After you have served your time and all probation you can sign up to get your voting rights back. I feel that if your back in society contributing by working paying your taxes,you should have your rights back. I also feel that prisoners even after they serve there time should still have to do some type of community service hours.
Folks, we have too many pressing problems to spend time worrying about this right now -- save it for another day.
Once your square with the house, your square with the house.
For the sake of argument, Let's say a prisoner is behind bars for rape and the person he is voting for stands behind them because they were not in their right mind when they did it? Would you want THAT prisoner to vote? Or..a child molester voting for someone who supports mental health treatment instead of prison time? Should THAT prisoner be allowed to vote?
they either can or cannot. No in between. No, imo. they gave up any and all rights to everything when they were convicted and became wards of the state. fyi, there's no "right" to vote on a national level. that right comes from the state.
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